USCG Pollution Responder

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What is the National Response Canter's phone number? 1-800-424-8802
What information does the Privacy Act Statement protect? The statement is used to protect information obtained from the witness pertaining to the spill investigation. It is used to protect the name, address, phone number and other contact information obtained from the witness. *Privacy Act of 1974, 5 USC 552a*
What gives the Coast Guard the legal authority to enter private property? The FWPCA(Federal Water Pollution Control Act) and CERCLA(Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act) give the basic authority allowing government officials the ability to respond and access private property for the purposes of investigating an oil discharge or hazardous material release. *MSM Vol.VI, Ports and Waterways Activities Ch 7.D (COMDTINST M16000.11(series))*
What title CFR governs marine casualties? 46 CFR Part 4 governs the investigation and reporting of marine casualties.
What title CFR Governs the use of dispersants and other chemicals? 40 CFR 300 Subpart J
What is a Class I Civil Penalty and its monetary amount? The Class I Administrative Civil Penalty process is used when the issuance of a <acronym title="Letter of Warning"><span class="caps">LOW</span></acronym> or <acronym title="Notice of Violation"><span class="caps">NOV</span></acronym> is not appropriate. These cases are adjudicated by the Coast Guard Hearing Office. In all cases, the final disposition will be considered part of the relevant safety record for use in future Coast Guard activities. *MSM Vol. V* The monetary amount can be no greater the $37,500 per violation. *COMDTINST 16200.3A*
What is the Class II penalty and its monetary amount. The Class II Administrative Civil Penalty process is used only for certain violations of the <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> as amended by <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA</span></acronym> and <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym>. It is typically pursued in egregious and willful violations of these statutes where the maximum penalty associated with a Class I Administrative Civil Penalty is deemed insufficient to meet enforcement goals and in cases where the Coast Guard wants to pursue other non-monetary requirements, such as the creation of an environmental compliance plan or other requirements that may be imposed by an <acronym title="Administrative Law Judge"><span class="caps">ALJ</span></acronym>. Class II Administrative Civil Penalty Assessments may be made only by an <acronym title="Administrative Law Judge"><span class="caps">ALJ</span></acronym> using the procedures contained in 33 CFR Part 20. In all cases, the final disposition will be considered part of the relevant safety record for use in future Coast Guard activities. *MSM Vol. V* The monetary amount is $37,500 Per day of violation or $107,500 per day of violation for subsequent violations. *COMDTINST 16200.3A*
What are the State Refuges in our AOR(Area of Responsibility)? The State Refuges are: <li>Biloxi State Wildlife Management Area</li> <li>Pass A Loutre State Waterfowl Management Area</li> <li>Bohemia State Wildlife Management Area</li> <li>Fountainebleau State Park</li> <li>Manchac State Wildlife Management Area</li>
What are the National Refuges in our AOR(Area of Responsibility)? The National Refuges are: *Breton National Wildlife Refuge *Delta National Wildlife Refuge
What is the number for API(American Petroleum Institute) Gravity? The *API gravity*(American Petroleum Institute Gravity)is a measure of how heavy or light petroleum liquid is compared to water. If its API gravity is greater than 10 it is lighter and floats on water; if it is less than 10 it is heavier and sinks. API gravity is an inverse measure of the relative density of a petroleum liquid and the density of water. It is also used to compare the relative densities of petroleum liquids. *American Petroleum Institute*
What are the characteristics of Towing Boom? Towing boom is pulled by towboats in various configurations to contain and recover slicks. The boat speed is typically less than 1 knot (0.5m/sec).
Describe U-Booming. Two vessels tow the boom in a U configuration by drifting downstream, holding in a stationary or by moving upstream toward the spill source. The Towboats must maintain a width of 1/3 the boom length.
Describe V-Booming. Three vessels and a skimmer are used in a V configuration. A tie-in is usually required to maintain the V shape.
Describe J-Booming. Two vessels and a skimmer are used in a J configuration, diverting the oil to allow simultaneous containment and recovery.
Describe the characteristics of anchored boom. Anchored physical protection booming techniques are used to control or contain floating oil slicks without the need of towing.
Describe exclusion booming. Boom is deployed across or around sensitive areas and anchored in place. Approaching oil is deflected or contained by the boom.
Describe diversion booming. Boom is deployed at an angle to the approaching slick. Oil is diverted away from the sensitive area to a less sensitive location for recovery.
Describe containment booming. Boom is configured in a body of contaminated water for the purpose of holding or slowing the movement of contamination. The oil remains contained until the product can be removed by a skimmer.
Describe deflection booming. Boom is placed in a body of water for the sole purpose of changing the course of the contamination.
What are the 5 types of weir skimmers? <li>Simple Weir</li> <li>Self-Leveling Weir</li> <li>Weir with Integral Screw Auger</li> <li>Advancing Weir</li> <li>Weir Boom</li>
Describe a Simple Weir Skimmer. Oil flows over a simple weir lip and is collected in a sump. Water is discharged through ports located below the weir. Some models have an onboard pump whereas others require a remote pump.
Describe a Self-Leveling Weir. Skims a discrete layer towards the top of a fluid. Self-leveling weirs use a means of adjusting its height, as the pumping rate is increased or decreased and the fluid level in the sump changes.
Describe a Weir with Integral Screw Auger. A simple weir skims the top layer of a fluid into a hopper directly connected to a reversible, horizontal or vertical screw auger pump. Some newer models use a self-leveling weir. The screw pump drives, and is cleared by, a rotating scraper. The tightly fitted scraper seals the screw and creates a positive head at the pump discharge. Note that a number of other skimmer types utilize a screw auger pump for transferring collected liquid and not as an integral part of the recovery mechanism.
Describe an Advancing Weir. In most devices, an initial weir lip is advanced through a slick allowing water and oil to pass into a collection/separation chamber where oil is pumped from the surface. Water is discharged through ports below. Some models incorporate water jets to include the flow of over the weir lip. Other advancing weir skimmers use impellers or educators to draw in oil.
Describe Weir Boom. The boom is towed in a catenary shape into a slick or anchored to allow oil to be carried into it by water current and wind. Skimming weirs (Horizontal Slots) are built into several sections of boom at the apex. Collected oil is pumped to a vessel for storage.
List the 6 types of Oleophilic Surface Skimmers. <li>Drum</li> <li>Disc</li> <li>Rope Mop</li> <li>Zero Relative Velocity Rope Mop</li> <li>Sorbent lifting Belt</li> <li>Brush</li>
Describe a drum skimmer. One or more oleophilic drums that are driven by hydraulic, pneumatic or electric motors are rotated downward into an oil slick. Recovered oil is then scraped off the drums into a trough and, in some models, a sump.
describe a disc skimmer. Banks of oleophilic disks are arranged in a linear, triangular, circular or square configuration. Each group of discs is rotated downward into the oil, driven by hydraulic, pneumatic or electric motors. PVS or aluminum scrapers remove oil adhering to the discs, and it flows down tubes or directly into a sump. Some smaller skimmers have external discharge pumps while other models have onboard pumps.
Describe a rope mop. Single or multiple polyethylene fiber ropes are pulled through a slick by wringer-rollers. The rope mop is wrung and then continuously returned to the slick, repeating the cycle. Recovered oil is collected below the wringer assembly or pumped via a suction hose.
Describe a zero relative velocity rope mop. The standard configuration of a <acronym title="Zero Relative Velocity"><span class="caps">ZRV</span></acronym> rope mop skimmer consists of a series of oleophilic ropes mounted and pulled in between the hulls of a self-propelled catamaran vessel. The rope mops are operated so that they contact the oil/water surface at the same speed as the vessel encounters slicks, resulting in zero relative velocity between the rope mops and the oil. Therefore, <acronym title="Zero Relative Velocity"><span class="caps">ZRV</span></acronym> rope mop skimmers are effective in high currents. Hydraulically-driven squeeze rollers wring out the oil-laden rope mops.
Describe a sorbent lifting belt. An inclined oleophilic belt is advanced through a slick so that oil and debris are conveyed up the belt. Collected debris is scraped off and oil adhering to the belt is scraped from it. In some models, an induction pump is positioned behind the semi-porous belt located just below the waterline. The pump impeller draws liquid through the belt, forcing oil onto and into the belt.
Describe a brush. Closely spaced brushes collect oil, which is then removed by a comb-like scraper before being conveyed to storage. On some smaller models, brushes are mounted on a drum. Larger models employ multiple linear chains deployed from the side or bow of a dedicated vessel or a vessel of opportunity.
List the three kinds of Hydrodynamic Skimmers. <li>Water Jet</li> <li>Submersion Plane/Belt</li> <li>Rotating Vane</li>
Describe a water jet skimmer. Nozzles on a pressurized pipe spray water over an inclined weir. Entrained water rises and carries oil over the weir lip. Once over the weir lip, a containment boom, skimmer pump or other oil collection system retains the oil.
Describe a submersion plane/belt. As the skimmer advances, oil is forced downward by a plane or moving belt. Once past the belt, the buoyancy of the oil causes it to rise up into a collection well from which it is pumped to onboard storage. Water leaves the collection well through a flow control gate.
Describe a rotating vane. A rotor with a series of vanes rotates beneath the water surface and draws oil towards the weir lip. Water passes through the vanes and is discharged below the skimmer. Recovered oil is collects in a sump and is then pumped to a remote storage.
Describe a paddle belt. A series of paddles mounted on a moving belt rotate downward into the slick and convey the oil and water held against a baffle underneath the belt into a collection/separation tank. The collected mixture is allowed to separate and the water is discharged.
List the 8 applicable laws concerning pollution investigation. <li>Refuse Act</li> <li>Federal Water Pollution Control Act (FWPCA)</li> <li>Clean Water Act (CWA)</li> <li>Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA 90)</li> <li>Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act (CERCLA)</li> <li>Resource Conservation & Recovery Act (RCRA)</li> <li>Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act (SARA)</li> <li>Act to Prevent Pollution from Ships (APPS)</li>
Which act prohibits the discharge of virtually any material into the navigable waters of the U.S. The Refuse Act (1899)
Which act was not environmentally motivated, but was intended to prevent obstruction of the waterways. The Refuse Act (1899)
Which act is enforced by the Army Corp of Engineers (ACOE)? The Refuse Act (1899)
Which act established civil penalties that can be from $500 up to $2500? The Refuse Act (1899)
Which act established Criminal Penalties that can be from 30 days up to 1 year in jail? The Refuse Act (1899)
Which act is codified in 33USC403? The Refuse Act (1899)
Which act was enacted in order to attain a "safe" water quality level and to eliminate all water pollution by the year 1985? <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> (1972)
Which act prohibits the discharge of oil & hazardous substances in harmful quantities into the navigable waterways of the U.S? <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> (1972)
Which act provides the Coast Guard's basic authority for investigating pollution with executive order 11735? <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> (1972)
Which act is used when civil penalties are sought for the prohibited discharges of hazardous substances? <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> (1972)
Which act created the National Contingency Plan? <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> (1972)
Which act created the National Strike Force? <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> (1972)
Which act established Civil penalties that can be a maximum of $5,000? <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> (1972)
Which act established Criminal penalties that can be 1 year in jail or $10,000 for failure to notify or illegal dumping? <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> (1972)
Which act amended the <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym> by authorizing the establishment of Pollution Prevention Regulations? <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> (1977)
Which act increased enforcement & response authority for the Coast Guard? <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> (1977)
Which act established the 311(k) revolving pollution fund with an initial 35 million dollar ceiling, 33USC1321 section 311(k), but did not have a provision to refill it, so it ended up running dry? <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> (1977)
Which act created the National Response Center? <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> (1977)
Which act helped to redefine what a harmful quantity for oil was (40CFR117.3) as well as defining what reportable quantities are for designated harmful substances (40CFR302)? <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> (1977)
What act authorized federal assumption of cleanup operations? <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> (1977)
What act required vessels to have applicable marine sanitation devices for human wastes storage and/or processing aboard vessels (33CFR159)? <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> (1977)
What act required federal facilities to control pollution? <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> (1977)
Which act amended the <acronym title="Clean Water Act"><span class="caps">CWA</span></acronym> and <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym>? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act authorized the 1 billion dollar Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund & created the National Pollution Fund Center which administrates the OSLTF? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act increased the size of the Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund to 2.7 billion dollars and revived a five cents per barrel tax which is due to be discontinued on 31DEC14? The Energy Act of 2005
Which act increased OSC authority to designate responsible parties? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act enabled the OSC to issue administrative orders for control of discharges & oil spill cleanups? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act created industrial taxes on oil to help maintain the fund? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act established the National Strike Force Coordination Center & reestablished the Atlantic Strike Team? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act increased the Responsible Parties liabilities & responsibilities for cleanup & reimbursement as well as increasing civil penalties for violation? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act allows states to access the fund? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act allows for third party claims for personal property & environmental damage caused by an incident? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act required all regulated facilities to have Facility Response Plans? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Where is the information for assessing penalties under <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym> found? Section 311(b)(6) of the FWPCA.
Which act established Civil penalties at $25,000 per day, which has since increased to $40,000 per day? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act increased Criminal penalties to 5 years in jail for failure to notify and 15 years for intentional spills, with the dollar amount determined by the federal court system? <acronym title="Oil Pollution Act of 1990"><span class="caps">OPA 90</span></acronym>
Which act is managed by the EPA? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
Which act deals with the release of hazardous, non-oil, substances on land, water and air? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
Which act established the National Priorities List (40CFR300 Appendix B)? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
Which act established the superfund ($1.6 billion)? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
Which act requires the responsible party to report any release of a hazardous substance if the amount meets or exceed the reportable quantity (40 CFR 302), which will become a violation if the RP doesn't report it or clean it up? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
Which act allows the Coast Guard to use the FWPCA if a chemical listed in 40CFR302 or 40CFR117.3 is released? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
Which act gives the government authority to respond to & clean up hazardous waste sites? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
Which act has a Civil penalty of $32,500 per violation and $32,500 per day if the situation is referenced in the Civil Penalty Guide? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
Which act provides Criminal Penalties up to 3 years in jail and a maximum fine of $500,000? <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980)
In accordance with <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym> (1980), which three jurisdictional elements must be present prior to an OSC initiating a response? <li>Material must be a hazardous substance or it is a pollutant or contaminate that may present an imminent & Substantial danger to the public health or welfare.</li> <li>There has been a release, or there is a substantial threat of a release into the environment.</li> <li>The Responsible Party is not taking proper removal actions</li>
Which act amended the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act in 1986? <acronym title="Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act"><span class="caps">SARA</span></acronym> (1986)
Which act reauthorized the Super Fund & raised it to $8.5 billion? <acronym title="Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act"><span class="caps">SARA</span></acronym> (1986)
Which act redefined "release" to include abandoned drums and containers? <acronym title="Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act"><span class="caps">SARA</span></acronym>
Which act redefined "response" to include enforcement activities? <acronym title="Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act"><span class="caps">SARA</span></acronym>
Which act allows local governments to apply for reimbursement of expenses up to $25,000 a day? <acronym title="Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act"><span class="caps">SARA</span></acronym>
Which act extended liability to foreign ships in areas under U.S. control whether or not they are subject to U.S. jurisdiction? <acronym title="Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act"><span class="caps">SARA</span></acronym>
Which act established the HAZ Com Standards (29CFR1910.1200). <acronym title="Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act"><span class="caps">SARA</span></acronym>
Which act established the "Right to Know" act which requires facilities to inform the public around them of what is being produced in the facility? <acronym title="Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act"><span class="caps">SARA</span></acronym>
Which act defines the characteristics of hazardous waste? <acronym title="Resource Conservation and Recovery Act"><span class="caps">RCRA</span></acronym> (1976)
Which act established the "Cradle to Grave" policy for hazardous waste, which states that a record and/or a tracking system of the hazardous waste from the time it was created to the time it is disposed of or its final resting place, which must be kept for 3 years? <acronym title="Resource Conservation and Recovery Act"><span class="caps">RCRA</span></acronym> (1976)
Which act adopts the IMO regulations set forth in Marpol 73/78? <acronym title="Act to Prevent Pollution from Ships"><span class="caps">APPS</span></acronym>
What constitutes a "Harmful Quantity"? Discharge of oil in such quantities that violate applicable water quality standards or cause a film, sheen or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shoreline; or cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines.
What table is used to determine a Reportable Quantity under <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym>? 40CFR117.3 table
What table is used to determine a Reportable Quantity under <acronym title="Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act"><span class="caps">CERCLA</span></acronym>? 40CFR302.4 table
Define Responsible Party. Owner, operator, lease, charterer, licensee, permitee, holder of a right of use and easement granted of any vessel, facility, platform, deep water port or pipeline. 40CFR300.5
Define Navigable Waterway. All waters that are currently used, were used or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce, including all waters subject to the ebb and flow of the tide.
Describe the conditions necessary to enter private property. To minimize the possibility or damaging effects of a spill, to determine the severity and source of a spill and to decide possible courses of action to mitigate spill damage.
What is the policy for gaining access to private property? <li>Attempt to get authorization from the properties owner.</li> <li>Unauthorized access only allowed in emergency situations.</li> <li>Consult legal.</li> <li>Have local authorities present</li> <li>Explain reason for needing to gain access</li> <li>Ensure professionalism is maintained</li> <li>Ensure that property is not damaged</li> <li>Ensure property is secured upon departure</li> <li>After emergency access is not authorized without a warrant</li>
What regulation gives the COTP authority to do anything on the water for the safety of the water? 33 CFR 6.04-7
When would a COTP be issued? When it is necessary to prevent any hazard to people, the environment, or the port.
What can a COTP order control? Movement and operations of either vessels or facilities.
Who issues a COTP order and under what authority? The order can be issued by the District Commander or the COTP under authority of the Ports and Waterways Safety Act (33 CFR 160.113).
Can a COTP order be issued to multiple vessels or facilities simultaneously? No
What is a Letter of Undertaking? A promissory note drawn up by a Sector approved lawyer that says an owner or operator of a foreign flagged vessel will pay any civil penalties incurred by the vessel will be paid before the vessel departs United States Waters. A cashier’s check or surety bond may be used.
What is the purpose and use of an Administrative Order? It is an order that would give specific task direction to a person, vessel, or facility to do something prior to conducting further operations. It is typically used if the RP is not cleaning up their spill to the satisfaction of the <acronym title="Federal On-Scene Coordinators Representative"><span class="caps">FOSCR</span></acronym>. The administrative order directs them in how they should proceed in the clean up.
What is a transfer suspension order and what regulations gives us the authority to issue one? A suspension of transfer operations on a vessel or facility due to unsafe operations until otherwise noted (33 CFR 156.112).
What is the purpose of a Notice of Federal Interest? It notifies any possible Responsible Party that they may be responsible for the spill. If the Responsible Party does not take action for the cleanup, the government assumes responsibility for the cleanup. The Responsible Party could be held liable for either $40,000 or up to three times the actual cost of the cleanup if found responsible for the spill. By signing a NOFI a person is not admitting guilt, but acknowledging receipt.
What constitutes a Minor spill? <li>Oil - Inland - 0 to 10,000 gallons</li> <li>Oil - Coastal - 10,000 to 100,000 gallons</li> <li>Hazardous Materials - A quantity that poses minimal threat to public health or the welfare of the United States or the environment.
What constitutes a Medium spill? <li>Oil - Inland - 1,000 to 10,000 gallons.</li> <li>Oil - Coastal - 10,000 to 100,000 gallons.</li> <li>Hazardous Materials - Does not meet the criteria for classification as a minor or a major release.</li>
What constitutes a Major spill? <li>Oil - Inland - Over 10,000 gallons</li> <li>Oil - Coastal - Over 100,000 gallons.</li> <li>Hazardous Materials - A quantity that poses a substantial threat to public health or welfare of the United States or the environment or results in significant public concern.</li>
What cite has the differences between Discharge/Release sizes? 40 CFR 300.5
What is the applicability for 33 CFR 154? Each waterfront facility that is capable of transferring oil or hazardous materials in bulk, to or from a vessel, where the vessel has a total capacity, from a combination of all bulk products carried, of 250 barrels or more.
What is the applicability for 33 CFR 155? Each ship that is operated under the authority of the United States and any ship under any other flag operating on the navigable waters of the United States except warships of those exempted by MARPOL.
What is the applicability of 33 CFR 156? The transfer of oil or hazardous material on the navigable waters or Contiguous Zone of the United States to, from, or within each vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels or more, except within public vessels.
What is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility and who is issued one? A <acronym title="Certificate of Financial Responsibility"><span class="caps">COFR</span></acronym> is to ensure that a vessel or company in charge of a vessel has sufficient funds to cover the cost of a spill should it occur (33 CFR 138.12/65).
How long is a <acronym title="Certificate of Financial Responsibility"><span class="caps">COFR</span></acronym> valid for and who issues them? a <acronym title="Certificate of Financial Responsibility"><span class="caps">COFR</span></acronym> is valid for three years and is issued by the National Pollution Funds Center.
What is a Notice of Violation and when can it be issued? A <acronym title="Notice of Violation"><span class="caps">NOV</span></acronym> is civil penalty which can be issued in the case of oil discharges of 1,000 gallons or less with a maximum fine of $10,000. A <acronym title="Notice of Violation"><span class="caps">NOV</span></acronym> can only be issued when all five elements are present (COMDTINST M5582.1 / 33 CFR 1.07).
What is a Report of Violation? A Civil penalty whose fines are updated through the federal register (33 CFR 1.07 / 33 CFR 27).
What is the applicability of Marpol? Ships entitled to fly the flag of a Party to the Convention, ships not entitled to fly the flag of a party but which operates under the authority of a party.
When should a pollution incident be reported and by who? Any person in charge of a vessel or of an on shore of offshore facility shall, as soon as they have knowledge of any discharge of oil or a hazardous substance from such vessel or facility violation of any U.S. applicable laws, immediately notify the National Response Center or the nearest pre-designated USCG or EPA OSC for the geographic area where the discharge occurs or the nearest USCG unit (33 CFR 153.203).
What constitutes a harmful quantity of oil? Anything that creates a sheen, emulsion, discoloration, or sludge.
Define Coastal Zone as it pertains to the <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym>. All United States waters subject to the tide, United States waters of the Great Lakes, specified ports and harbors on inland rivers, waters of the contiguous zone, other waters of the high seas subject to the National Contingency Plan, and the land surface or land substrata, ground waters, and ambient air proximal to those waters.
Define Inland Zone as it pertains to <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym>. The environment inland of the coastal zone excluding the Great Lakes and specified ports and harbors on inland rivers.
Define the term Coastal Waters as it applies to <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym>. For the purpose of classifying the size of discharges, means the waters of the coastal zone except for the Great Lakes and specified ports and harbors on inland rivers.
Define the term Inland Waters as it applies to <acronym title="Federal Water Pollution Control Act"><span class="caps">FWPCA</span></acronym>. For the purpose of classifying the size of discharges, means those waters of the United States in the inland zone, waters of the Great Lakes, and specified ports and harbors on inland rivers.
Define Exclusive Economic Zone. It stretches from the seaward edge of the territorial sea out to 200 nautical miles from its coast.
Define Territorial Sea. A state's territorial sea extends up to 12 nautical miles from its baseline.
Define Contiguous Zone. The zone of the high seas which is contiguous to the territorial sea and which extends nine miles outward from the outer limit of the territorial sea.
What is the definition of Hazardous Substance? Hazardous substance as defined by section 101(14) of CERCLA, means: Any substance designated pursuant to section 311(b)(2)(A) of the CWA; any element, compound, mixture, solution, or substance designated pursuant to section 102 of CERCLA; any hazardous waste having the characteristics identified under or listed pursuant to section 3001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act (but not including any waste the regulation of which under the Solid Waste Disposal Act (42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq.) has been suspended by Act of Congress); any toxic pollutant listed under section 307(a) of the CWA; any hazardous air pollutant listed under section 112 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7521 et seq.); and any imminently hazardous chemical substance or mixture with respect to which the EPA Administrator has taken action pursuant to section 7 of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 U.S.C. 2601 et seq.). The term does not include petroleum, including crude oil or any fraction thereof which is not otherwise specifically listed or designated as a hazardous substance in the first sentence of this paragraph, and the term does not include natural gas, natural gas liquids, liquified natural gas, or synthetic gas usable for fuel (or mixtures of natural gas and such synthetic gas). *33 CFR 300.5*
What are the two kinds of hazardous waste? <li>Characteristic hazardous wastes are materials that are known or tested to exhibit a hazardous trait.</li> <li>Listed hazardous waste are materials specifically listed by the EPA or State as a hazardous waste.</li>
What is the definition of Oil? Oil as defined by section 311(a)(1) of the CWA, means oil of any kind or in any form, including, but not limited to, petroleum, fuel oil, sludge, oil refuse, and oil mixed with wastes other than dredged spoil. Oil, as defined by section 1001 of the OPA means oil of any kind or in any form, including, but not limited to, petroleum, fuel oil, sludge, oil refuse, and oil mixed with wastes other than dredged spoil, but does not include petroleum, including crude oil or any fraction thereof, which is specifically listed or designated as a hazardous substance under subparagraphs (A) through (F) of section 101(14) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (42 U.S.C. 9601) and which is subject to the provisions of that Act.
What is the difference between a Release and a Discharge? <li>Release means the spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying discharging, injecting, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing into the environment of a hazardous substance.</li> <li>Discharge means any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, or dumping of oil into the environment.</li>
What is a Certificate of Inspection and for what is it applicable? CG-841, a Certificate of Inspection, may be issued to a United States Vessel upon the completion of an incpection by the Officer in Charge of Marine Inspections. The certificate describes the vessel, the route the vessel may travel, the minimum manning requirements, the safety equipment on and appliance required to be on board, the total number of persons that may be carried and the names of the owners and operators. Thecertificate may also list cargoes for which the vessel is authorized to carry. *46 CFR 2.01-5 46 CFR 31.01-1*
What is a Certificate of Documentation? The Certification of Documentation is form CG–1270, which is issued to any vessel of at least five net tons wholly owned by a citizen or citizens of the United States is eligible for documentation under this part. This includes, but is not limited to, vessels used exclusively for recreational purposes and vessels used in foreign trade.
What is a Declaration of Inspection? A <acronym title=" Declaration of Inspection"><span class="caps">DOI</span></acronym> is a pre transfer agreement as required by 33 CFR 156.150 and 46 CFR 36.35-30.
What is an International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate? An <acronym title=" International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate"><span class="caps">IOPP</span></acronym> is issued to any oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above and any other ship of 400 gross tons and above which are engayed in international trade. The <acronym title=" International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate"><span class="caps">IOPP</span></acronym> shows that the vessel is in compliance with Annex I of Marpol 73/78.
What is a Shipboard Oil Prevention Emergency Plan? A <acronym title=" Shipboard Oil Prevention Emergency Plan"><span class="caps">SOPEP</span></acronym> is issued to any vessel issued an <acronym title=" International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate"><span class="caps">IOPP</span></acronym>. This plan provides procedures that the master and crew will follow in the event of an oil pollution incident.
What is an Oil Record Book? An Oil Record Book is required for any vessel issued an <acronym title=" International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate"><span class="caps">IOPP</span></acronym>. The Oil Record Book is a record of all transfers that a vessel conducts, including ballasting and cleaning of fuel tanks, discharge of dirty ballast or cleaning water from fuel tanks, collection and disposal of oil residues, discharge overboard or disposal of bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces and bunkering of fuel or bulk lubricating oil.